← Chapters
15. Parliament
312 questions 0 of 312 answered
Text size
Filter
Jump to
Purchase this subject for 45 days of unlimited access.
View plansMock Test Starting…
00:00
Question 1 of 1
Exit mock test? Your progress on this attempt will be lost.
1. Articles 79 to 122 of the Constitution are contained in which Part?
2. In which year were the Hindi names 'Rajya Sabha' and 'Lok Sabha' adopted for the Council of States and House of the People?
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the three constituent parts of the Indian Parliament under the Constitution?
4. In the legislature of the USA, the Upper House is known as the:
5. The parliamentary form of government in India, which emphasises interdependence between the legislature and executive, is reflected in the concept of:
6. Consider the following pairs regarding the structure of national legislatures:
(I) India – President, Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha
(II) Britain – Crown, House of Lords, House of Commons
(III) USA – President, Senate, House of Representatives
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
7. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as fixed by the Constitution is:
8. Of the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha, how many members are to be nominated by the President?
9. At present, how many members of the Rajya Sabha represent the union territories?
10. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories?
11. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
12. Representatives of the states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by means of which electoral system?
13. In the American Senate, how many members represent each state, irrespective of population?
14. Which state has the highest number of Rajya Sabha seats, due to its population?
15. How many union territories, out of the total eight, have representation in the Rajya Sabha?
16. The members nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha must have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and:
17. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as fixed by the Constitution is:
18. Of the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, how many members are to represent the union territories?
19. At present, how many members of the Lok Sabha represent the states?
20. The minimum age for a citizen to be eligible to vote in Lok Sabha elections is:
21. The voting age for Lok Sabha elections was reduced from 21 to 18 years by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
22. Which Act enabled members of the Lok Sabha from union territories to be chosen by direct election?
23. Before its discontinuation, the President could nominate members from which community to the Lok Sabha if it was not adequately represented?
24. How many members from the Anglo-Indian community could be nominated to the Lok Sabha?
25. Which Amendment Act made the last extension (upto 2020) of the Anglo-Indian nomination provision, before its eventual discontinuation?
26. Which Constitutional Amendment Act discontinued the provision for nomination of Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha?
27. The provision for nomination of Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha ceased to have effect on:
28. The constitutional provision requiring a uniform ratio between Lok Sabha seats and state population does not apply to a state having a population of less than:
29. Delimitation Commission Acts for readjustment of Lok Sabha seats and constituencies were enacted by Parliament in 1952, 1962, 1972, and:
30. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 froze the allocation of Lok Sabha seats to states at which census level?
31. Until which year was the freeze on readjustment of Lok Sabha seat allocation extended by the 84th Amendment Act of 2001?
32. The 87th Amendment Act of 2003 provided for delimitation of constituencies on the basis of which census?
33. Under the 104th Amendment Act of 2019, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is to last until:
34. Members elected to seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha are elected by:
35. Which system of representation has the Constitution adopted for elections to the Lok Sabha?
36. In India, the single transferable vote system of proportional representation is used for elections to the Rajya Sabha, state legislative councils, and for the election of the President and:
37. Consider the following statements regarding why proportional representation was not adopted for Lok Sabha elections:
(I) It was considered too complicated for voters given the low literacy scale in the country.
(II) It tends to multiply political parties, leading to instability in a parliamentary government.
(III) It was considered too expensive for a developing economy.
Which of the above is/are correct?
38. In which year was the Rajya Sabha first constituted?
39. What fraction of Rajya Sabha members retire every second year?
40. Which Act provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years?
41. In the first batch of the Rajya Sabha, the members who should retire early were decided by:
42. What is the normal term of the Lok Sabha from the date of its first meeting after general elections?
43. During a national emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by a law of Parliament for one year at a time, but the extension beyond the emergency's cessation cannot continue for more than:
44. A person's decision to dissolve the Lok Sabha before completion of its five-year term, made by the President, can be challenged in a court of law.
45. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution for a person to be chosen as a member of the Rajya Sabha?
46. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution for a person to be chosen as a member of the Lok Sabha?
47. Consider the following statements regarding the oath sworn by a person before being chosen as a member of Parliament:
(I) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
(II) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
(III) To faithfully discharge the duties of a member of Parliament
Which of the above is/are part of this oath, as per the Constitution's qualification requirement?
48. The requirement that a Rajya Sabha candidate from a particular state must be an elector in that state was dispensed with in which year?
49. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of dispensing with the domicile requirement for Rajya Sabha candidates in which year?
50. Which of the following disqualifies a person from being elected as a member of Parliament, as specified directly in the Constitution?
51. Holding an office of profit under the Union or state government disqualifies a person from Parliament membership, except in the case of:
52. On the question of whether a sitting member is subject to any disqualification, whose decision is final?
53. A person becomes disqualified from Parliament membership under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 if convicted for an offence resulting in imprisonment for how many years or more?
54. A member of Parliament incurs disqualification on the ground of defection if a nominated member joins a political party after the expiry of how many months?
55. Under the Tenth Schedule, the question of disqualification of a Rajya Sabha member on the ground of defection is decided by the:
56. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that the Chairman/Speaker's decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review?
57. If a person is elected to both Houses of Parliament, within how many days must he/she intimate which House he/she desires to serve?
58. If a sitting member of a state legislature is elected to Parliament, within how many days must he/she resign the state legislature seat, failing which the Parliament seat becomes vacant?
59. A House can declare the seat of a member vacant if he/she is absent from all its meetings, without permission, for a period of:
60. If a disqualified candidate is elected to Parliament, which authority can declare the election void?
61. Which of the following is a case in which a member of Parliament must vacate his/her seat?
62. What is the penalty per day for a person who sits or votes as a member of a House before taking the prescribed oath or affirmation?
63. Which Act enacted by Parliament in 1954 governs the salary, allowances, and pension of Members of Parliament?
64. In 2018, the monthly salary of Members of Parliament was increased from ₹50,000 to:
65. In which year did Parliament first provide for a pension for its members, though the Constitution itself contains no such provision?
66. In 2018, the monthly pension of a person who has served any period as a Member of Parliament was increased from ₹20,000 to:
67. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman, and Deputy Chairman are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, meaning they are:
68. Which Act enacted in 1953 governs the salaries and allowances of the Chairman/Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker/Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha as "Officers of Parliament"?
69. In 2018, the monthly salary of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha was increased from ₹1.25 lakh to:
70. Who fixes the date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
71. A resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be moved only after giving how many days' advance notice?
72. When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker can vote in the first instance but not in the case of:
73. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, what happens to the office of the Speaker?
74. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives powers and duties from three sources: the Constitution, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and:
75. What is the quorum required to constitute a meeting of the House?
76. In case of a tie in the House, the Speaker exercises a vote called the:
77. Who summons a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament to settle a deadlock over a bill?
78. Whose decision is final regarding whether a bill is a money bill or not?
79. The Speaker decides questions of disqualification of a Lok Sabha member arising on the ground of defection under which Schedule?
80. The Speaker acts as the ex-officio chairman of which group linking the Parliament of India with parliaments of the world?
81. Which of the following committees is the Speaker the chairman of?
82. A motion for the removal of the Speaker, to be considered and discussed, must have the support of at least how many members?
83. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is placed at which rank in the order of precedence, along with the Chief Justice of India?
84. In Britain, there is a convention that the Speaker resigns from party membership on election to the office. Is this convention fully established in India?
85. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected after the election of:
86. Who fixes the date of election of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
87. Whenever the Deputy Speaker is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its:
88. When the Speaker presides over the House, the Deputy Speaker is treated as:
89. In India, which party does the post of Deputy Speaker usually go to, as a convention?
90. The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under provisions of which Act?
91. Before 1921, who used to preside over meetings of the Central Legislative Council?
92. Who was appointed as the first Speaker of the central legislative assembly in 1921?
93. Who became the first Indian and the first elected Speaker of the central legislative assembly, in 1925?
94. Which Act changed the nomenclature of "President" and "Deputy President" of the Central Legislative Assembly to "Speaker" and "Deputy Speaker"?
95. Who were the first Speaker and first Deputy Speaker (respectively) of the Lok Sabha?
96. Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a panel of chairpersons of not more than how many members?
97. Can a member of the panel of chairpersons preside over the House when the office of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker is vacant?
98. Who administers the oath to the Speaker Pro Tem?
99. The main duty of the Speaker Pro Tem is to:
100. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
101. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed from office only if he/she is removed from the office of:
102. Consider the following statements regarding special powers of the Speaker not enjoyed by the Rajya Sabha Chairman:
(I) The Speaker decides whether a bill is a money bill or not.
(II) The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
(III) The Speaker alone can summon a joint sitting of Parliament.
Which of the above is/are correct?
103. Like the Speaker, can the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha vote in the first instance?
104. During any period when the Vice-President acts as President, he/she is paid:
105. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha performs the duties of the Chairman's office when it is vacant or when:
106. Is the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha subordinate to the Chairman?
107. Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, who nominates the panel of vice-chairpersons?
108. The secretariat of each House of Parliament is headed by a:
109. Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, who is nominated by the prime minister to function as the 'Leader of the House' in the Rajya Sabha?
110. The functionary equivalent to India's 'Leader of the House' is known in the USA as the:
111. In which year was an official Leader of the Opposition recognised for the first time in India?
112. Under which Act were the Leaders of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha accorded statutory recognition?
113. The Leader of the Opposition is entitled to salary, allowances, and facilities equivalent to that of a:
114. The functionary equivalent to India's 'Leader of the Opposition' is known in the USA as the:
115. According to the directions issued by the Chairman and the Speaker, the minimum numerical strength required for recognition as a political party is:
116. Who described the Leader of the Opposition as the 'alternative Prime Minister'?
117. The unique British institution formed by the Opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet is called the:
118. Are the offices of the Leader of the House and the Leader of the Opposition mentioned in the Constitution of India?
119. The office of 'whip' is based on:
120. In the Lok Sabha, the Chief Whip of the government party is which functionary?
121. In the Rajya Sabha, who holds the position of Chief Whip of the government party?
122. Under the Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998, a recognised party must have a strength of not less than how many members in respect of the Lok Sabha?
123. Under the same Act, a recognised group must have a strength of not less than how many members in respect of the Rajya Sabha?
124. The maximum gap permissible between two sessions of Parliament is:
125. Which of the following is one of the three usual sessions of Parliament in a year?
126. The period spanning between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new session is called:
127. Each meeting of a day in a Parliament session normally consists of two sittings: a morning sitting from 11 am to 1 pm, and a post-lunch sitting from:
128. When a House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called:
129. With whom does the power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lie?
130. Which authority issues the notification for prorogation of a session, after the House is adjourned sine die?
131. Which of the following is NOT subject to dissolution?
132. Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its normal tenure, the dissolution is:
133. Consider the following statements comparing adjournment and prorogation:
(I) Adjournment terminates only a sitting, while prorogation terminates a session.
(II) Adjournment is done by the presiding officer, while prorogation is done by the President.
(III) In Britain, prorogation brings to an end all bills or business pending before the House, unlike in India.
Which of the above is/are correct?
134. On prorogation, do bills pending before the House lapse?
135. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha:
136. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, a bill passed by both Houses but pending the assent of the President:
137. What is the minimum number of members that must be present in the Lok Sabha to constitute a quorum for conducting business?
138. What is the minimum number of members that must be present in the Rajya Sabha to constitute a quorum?
139. During an 'open' voting period in the Lok Sabha, which colour on the Individual Result Display Panel indicates an 'Abstain' vote?
140. Which method of recording votes in the Lobbies has become obsolete since the installation of Automatic Vote Recording Equipment?
141. The Constitution has declared which two languages for transacting business in Parliament?
142. English was originally intended to be discontinued as a floor language after fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution, but continued to be used along with Hindi due to which Act?
143. A minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament can remain a minister without being a member of either House for how long?
144. Members of the preceding Lok Sabha who could not get re-elected to the new Lok Sabha are called:
145. The purpose of a 'lame-duck session' was to pass which item to enable the government to carry on till the new Lok Sabha was constituted?
146. Which type of majority is also known as ordinary majority, functional majority, or working majority?
147. Simple majority is prescribed under which Article of the Constitution as the general rule for determining questions in Parliament?
148. Removal of the Vice-President in the Lok Sabha requires which type of majority?
149. "Effective majority" is referred to in the Constitution as a majority of:
150. Removal of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha requires which type of majority?
151. Absolute majority means a majority of the total membership of the House, irrespective of vacant seats or absentees. Is absolute majority prescribed by the Constitution as a standalone requirement for any case?
152. Amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 requires which type of majority?
153. Impeachment of the President under Article 61 requires:
154. Parliamentary legislation on matters in the State List under Article 249 requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in which House specifically?
155. Which kind of parliamentary question requires an oral answer and permits supplementary questions?
156. An unstarred question requires a written answer, and consequently:
157. A short notice question is one asked by giving notice of less than how many days?
158. Questions to private members are printed in which colour, to distinguish them from questions addressed to ministers?
159. The Zero Hour is an informal device that starts immediately after which parliamentary proceeding?
160. Since which year has the Zero Hour been in existence, as an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure?
161. Which type of motion is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very important matter, such as impeachment of the President?
162. A motion that is moved in substitution of an original motion, and if adopted supersedes it, is called a:
163. Consider the following statements regarding Subsidiary Motions:
(I) An Ancillary Motion is used as the regular way of proceeding with various kinds of business.
(II) A Superseding Motion is moved during debate on another issue and seeks to supersede it.
(III) An Amendment seeks to modify or substitute only a part of the original motion.
Which of the above is/are correct?
164. Which type of closure motion involves grouping the clauses of a bill or lengthy resolution into parts before the debate begins, with the entire part put to vote after debate?
165. Under which type of closure motion are only important clauses taken up for debate and voting, while intervening clauses are skipped and taken as passed?
166. Which type of closure motion involves putting undiscussed clauses of a bill to vote along with discussed ones, due to want of time?
167. A Privilege Motion is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a:
168. Since which year has the Calling Attention Motion, an Indian innovation, been in existence?
169. Unlike the Zero Hour, is the Calling Attention Motion mentioned in the Rules of Procedure?
170. An Adjournment Motion needs the support of how many members to be admitted?
171. The discussion on an Adjournment Motion should last for not less than:
172. Which House of Parliament is not permitted to make use of the Adjournment Motion?
173. A No-Confidence Motion needs the support of how many members to be admitted?
174. Under which Article of the Constitution is the council of ministers stated to be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha?
175. A Confidence Motion has emerged as a procedural device to cope with situations resulting from:
176. Consider the following statements comparing a Censure Motion and a No-Confidence Motion:
(I) A Censure Motion must state the reasons for its adoption, while a No-Confidence Motion need not.
(II) A Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister, while a No-Confidence Motion can be moved only against the entire council of ministers.
(III) If passed, a Censure Motion requires the council of ministers to resign, while a No-Confidence Motion does not.
Which of the above is/are correct?
177. The President's inaugural address to Parliament, discussed on a motion called the 'Motion of Thanks', corresponds to which address in Britain?
178. What happens if the Motion of Thanks on the President's address is not passed by the House?
179. A motion admitted by the Speaker but for which no date has been fixed for discussion is called a:
180. A motion for the adjournment of debate on a bill, or one that seeks to retard or delay the progress of business, is called a:
181. Is debate allowed on a Point of Order raised by a member?
182. A Half-an-Hour Discussion is meant for discussing a matter of sufficient public importance that has already been:
183. The Speaker can allot how many days in a week for Half-an-Hour Discussions?
184. A Short Duration Discussion is also known as a two-hour discussion and has been in existence since:
185. Is there a formal motion or voting before the House during a Short Duration Discussion?
186. The equivalent procedural device to 'Special Mention' in the Rajya Sabha is known in the Lok Sabha as:
187. Which of the following is discussed only on alternate Fridays and in the afternoon sitting?
188. Consider the following statements regarding Government Resolutions:
(I) They may approve international treaties, conventions, or agreements to which the government is a party.
(II) They may declare or approve certain policies of the government.
(III) They may approve recommendations of certain committees.
Which of the above is/are correct?
189. A Statutory Resolution is so called because it is moved in pursuance of:
190. Are all resolutions substantive motions?
191. The scheme of Youth Parliament was started on the recommendation of which body?
192. Bills introduced in Parliament are of two kinds: public bills and private bills, also known respectively as:
193. A bill that seeks to modify, amend, or revise an existing Act is classified, based on content, as a/an:
194. Based on procedure required for their passage in Parliament, bills can be broadly classified into how many types?
195. Introducing a Public Bill in the House requires how many days' notice?
196. Introducing a Private Bill in the House requires:
197. Whose responsibility is it to draft a Private Bill?
198. The introduction of an ordinary bill and its publication in the Gazette of India together constitute which stage?
199. At the Stage of General Discussion during the Second Reading, are the details of a bill discussed?
200. Consider the following statements regarding actions the House can take at the Stage of General Discussion:
(I) It may take the bill into consideration immediately or on a fixed date.
(II) It may refer the bill to a select committee or a joint committee.
(III) It may circulate the bill to elicit public opinion.
Which of the above is/are correct?
201. A Select Committee, as distinguished from a Joint Committee, consists of members of:
202. Can a select committee alter the underlying principles of a bill while examining it clause by clause?
203. At which stage is the debate confined to acceptance or rejection of the bill as a whole, with no amendments allowed?
204. If the first House rejects amendments suggested by the second House, or the second House rejects a bill altogether, or does not act on it for six months, what is deemed to have occurred?
205. What kind of veto does the President enjoy with respect to an ordinary bill, given that the President must give assent to a bill passed again after being returned for reconsideration?
206. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills?
207. A bill is not deemed to be a money bill merely because it provides for:
208. Whose decision is final on whether a bill is a money bill, and cannot be questioned even by the President?
209. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and that too on the recommendation of:
210. Within how many days must the Rajya Sabha return a money bill to the Lok Sabha, with or without recommendations?
211. If the Rajya Sabha does not return a money bill to the Lok Sabha within the prescribed period, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses:
212. When a money bill is presented to the President, which option is NOT available to him/her?
213. Financial Bills (I) are dealt with under which Article of the Constitution?
214. In which respects is a Financial Bill (I) similar to a money bill?
215. For a Financial Bill (I), whose recommendation is NOT required to move an amendment for reduction or abolition of a tax?
216. A Financial Bill (II), governed in all respects by the same legislative procedure as an ordinary bill, contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but does NOT include:
217. At what stage is the President's recommendation required for a Financial Bill (II)?
218. Which of the following statements about money bills and financial bills is correct?
219. A deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a bill, warranting a joint sitting, is deemed to occur under which of the following situations?
220. The provision for joint sitting is applicable to which type(s) of bills?
221. Who presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?
222. In the absence of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker at a joint sitting, who presides?
223. Whose Rules of Procedure govern a joint sitting of the two Houses?
224. At a joint sitting, new amendments to a bill cannot be proposed except in two specific cases. Which of the following is one of them?
225. Since 1950, how many times has the provision for joint sitting of the two Houses actually been invoked?
226. The Constitution refers to the budget by which term, since the word 'budget' itself is not used anywhere in the Constitution?
227. The 'annual financial statement' is dealt with under which Article of the Constitution?
228. India's financial year, for budget purposes, begins on 1 April and ends on:
229. On the recommendations of which committee's report was the Railway Budget separated from the General Budget in 1924?
230. In which year did the Central Government merge the Railway Budget into the General Budget?
231. No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President, under which Article of the Constitution?
232. Under which Article does the Constitution provide that no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law?
233. A money bill imposing tax shall not be introduced except on the recommendation of the President, and shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha, under which Article?
234. "No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law" is provided under which Article?
235. Regarding the enactment of the budget, can Parliament increase a tax proposed in the budget?
236. The Rajya Sabha should return a money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation to the Lok Sabha within how many days, under Article 109?
237. Voting on the demand for grants during the budget process is the exclusive privilege of which House?
238. The Lok Sabha can make a grant in advance for a part of the financial year, pending completion of voting on demands for grants, under which Article?
239. Which type of budget expenditure is non-votable by Parliament, being subject only to discussion?
240. Which of the following is part of the 'charged' expenditure on the Consolidated Fund of India?
241. Pensions of judges of which court are listed as charged expenditure, but NOT their salaries and allowances (which are charged only for Supreme Court judges)?
242. Since 2017, on which date is the Union Budget presented to the Lok Sabha, advanced from the earlier practice of the last working day of February?
243. Conventionally, who presents the budget to the Lok Sabha with a speech known as the 'budget speech'?
244. Can the Rajya Sabha vote on the demands for grants after the budget is laid before it?
245. Which report, prepared by the finance ministry and indicating the status of the national economy, is now presented one day or a few days before the budget?
246. During the General Discussion stage on the budget, can a cut motion be moved or the budget submitted to a vote?
247. In which year was the departmental standing committee system, which scrutinises demands for grants, established?
248. How many departmental standing committees of Parliament examine and discuss the demands for grants during the budget process?
249. Which type of cut motion represents disapproval of the policy underlying a demand, stating that the amount be reduced to ₹1?
250. Which type of cut motion ventilates a specific grievance within the responsibility of the Government of India, stating that the demand be reduced by ₹100?
251. On the last day allotted for discussion and voting on demands for grants, the Speaker puts all remaining demands to vote regardless of whether they were discussed. This practice is called:
252. After demands for grants are voted on and passed by the Lok Sabha, which bill is introduced to provide for appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India?
253. The provision allowing the Lok Sabha to make a grant in advance, pending completion of the demands for grants voting and enactment of the appropriation bill, is known as the:
254. A Vote on Account is generally granted for two months, for an amount equivalent to what fraction of the total estimation?
255. In an election year, the Vote on Account may be taken for a longer period, of about:
256. The 'Finance Bill' gives effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India and is subject to all conditions applicable to a:
257. According to the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act of 1931, within how many days must the Finance Bill be enacted?
258. Which type of grant is made when the amount authorised through the appropriation act for a service is found insufficient for that year?
259. Which type of grant is made when a need arises during the current financial year for expenditure on a new service not contemplated in the budget?
260. Before demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must first be approved by which committee?
261. Which type of grant is described as being like a "blank cheque" given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha, for meeting an unexpected demand whose magnitude or character cannot be stated with the usual budget detail?
262. A Token Grant is granted when funds for a proposed new service can be made available through:
263. Which fund is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited, with no money appropriated from it except in accordance with a parliamentary law?
264. The Consolidated Fund of India and Public Account of India are both dealt with under which Article of the Constitution?
265. Payments from the Public Account of India, which includes provident fund deposits and savings bank deposits, can be made:
266. The Contingency Fund of India, established under Article 267, is placed at the disposal of:
267. In which year was the Contingency Fund of India Act enacted by Parliament?
268. Who holds the Contingency Fund of India on behalf of the President?
269. How many subjects does the Union List presently contain, as against 97 originally?
270. How many subjects does the Concurrent List presently contain, as against 47 originally?
271. With regard to the Concurrent List, whose law prevails in case of a conflict between Parliament and a state legislature?
272. How many subjects does the State List presently contain, having been reduced from an original 66?
273. Consider the following statements regarding circumstances under which Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List:
(I) When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect.
(II) When two or more states make a joint request to Parliament.
(III) When the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
Which of the above is/are correct?
274. Ordinances issued by the President during the recess of Parliament must be approved by Parliament within how many weeks after its reassembly?
275. Rules and regulations made by the Executive within the framework of a parent law, known as delegated legislation, are:
276. Which of the following is a way the Lok Sabha can express lack of confidence in the government, apart from a no-confidence motion?
277. Which financial committee examines cases of illegal, irregular, or improper usage of public expenditure, along with the Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings?
278. Parliamentary control over the Executive in financial matters operates in two stages: budgetary control and:
279. The practice by which granted money not spent by the end of the financial year returns to the Consolidated Fund of India is known as the:
280. The heavy rush of government expenditure towards the close of the financial year, resulting from the rule of lapse, is popularly called:
281. The major part of the Constitution can be amended by Parliament with which type of majority?
282. Which authority alone has the power to initiate the process of Constitutional amendment, among the three ways of amendment?
283. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that Parliament's constituent power is subject to the 'basic structure' of the Constitution?
284. Which of the following is a judicial power and function of Parliament?
285. Under its electoral powers, the Rajya Sabha elects its:
286. Which Act, enacted by Parliament under its electoral powers, regulates elections to the offices of President and Vice-President?
287. Which of the following is a factor contributing to the ineffectiveness of parliamentary control over administration in India?
288. Financial committees like the Public Accounts Committee examine public expenditure only after it has been incurred by the Executive, meaning they do:
289. In which of the following matters is the Rajya Sabha's status equal to that of the Lok Sabha?
290. Regarding removal of the Vice-President, which House alone can initiate the resolution for removal?
291. Whose responsibility are ministers, including the Prime Minister, regardless of which House they belong to?
292. Regarding a financial bill not containing solely the matters of Article 110, which House alone can it be introduced in?
293. Can the Rajya Sabha remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion?
294. Which of the following is an exclusive/special power of the Rajya Sabha, not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha?
295. If a proclamation of national emergency, President's Rule, or financial emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved, the proclamation can remain effective if approved by:
296. The position of the Rajya Sabha in India's constitutional system has been described as:
297. Which of the following is cited as a ground supporting the utility of the Rajya Sabha, despite its lesser powers compared to the Lok Sabha?
298. Do parliamentary privileges extend to the President, who is also an integral part of Parliament?
299. Which Amendment Act restored the freedom of the press to publish true reports of parliamentary proceedings without prior permission of the House?
300. Does the collective privilege of publishing true reports of proceedings apply to a secret sitting of the House?
301. For how many days before the beginning and after the end of a session are members of Parliament protected from arrest, under individual privileges?
302. A member's freedom of speech in Parliament, protecting them from court proceedings for anything said or voted, is subject to:
303. Consider the following statements distinguishing 'breach of privilege' from 'contempt of the House':
(I) Contempt is not always a breach of privilege, but a breach of privilege is always contempt.
(II) Breach of privilege is a clear violation of specific privileges, immunities, or powers.
(III) Contempt applies only to actions taken by outsiders, never by members.
Which of the above is/are correct?
304. Originally, Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentioned freedom of speech in Parliament and which other privilege?
305. With regard to privileges other than those expressly mentioned, the Constitution originally provided that they were to be the same as those of which body, until defined by Parliament?
306. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 made only verbal changes regarding other privileges, by dropping direct reference to:
307. Parliament's privileges are based on how many sources, given that Parliament has not made a special law to exhaustively codify them?
308. According to A.V. Dicey, the doctrine of sovereignty of Parliament, a cardinal feature of the British constitutional system, has how many implications?
309. Which of the following is NOT among the factors that limit the sovereignty of the Indian Parliament, as compared to the British Parliament?
310. The incorporation of a code of justiciable fundamental rights, restricting Parliament's authority, is found under which Part of the Constitution?
311. Article 13 prohibits the State from making a law that takes away or abrogates a fundamental right; consequently, a Parliamentary law contravening fundamental rights shall be:
312. In terms of legal restriction on legislative sovereignty, the Indian Parliament is said to be similar to which legislature?