Centre-State and Inter-State Relations FAQs

1. Legislative relations between the Centre and the states are dealt with under which Part of the Constitution?

2. Which Articles deal with the legislative relations between the Centre and the states?

3. There are four aspects of Centre-state legislative relations. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

4. A state legislature's laws are generally not applicable outside the state except when there is which of the following?

5. Which of the following can alone make 'extra-territorial legislation'?

6. Consider the following Union Territories: (I) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (II) Lakshadweep (III) Puducherry For which of the above can the President make regulations without the condition of the Assembly being suspended or dissolved?

7. Which authority is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in a state?

8. The Governor of which state may direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomous district) in the state?

9. For tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, which authority enjoys the power to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply?

10. The three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Centre and the states is contained in which Schedule?

11. How many subjects does the Union List presently contain?

12. How many subjects did the Union List originally contain?

13. How many subjects does the State List presently contain?

14. How many subjects did the State List originally contain?

15. How many subjects does the Concurrent List presently contain?

16. How many subjects did the Concurrent List originally contain?

17. Consider the following subjects transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976: (I) Education (II) Forests (III) Agriculture Which of the above is/are correct?

18. Which Amendment Act made a special provision with respect to goods and services tax in the distribution of legislative subjects?

19. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects is vested in which authority?

20. In case of overlapping between the Union List and the State List, which list should prevail?

21. In case of a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List, which list should prevail?

22. In the US, where are the residuary powers vested?

23. In Canada, where are the residuary powers vested?

24. Under the Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were vested in which authority?

25. If a state law on a Concurrent List subject has received the President's assent after being reserved for consideration, which law prevails in that state?

26. Under how many extraordinary circumstances can Parliament legislate on a matter in the State List?

27. A Rajya Sabha resolution empowering Parliament to legislate on a State List matter must be supported by which majority?

28. For how long does a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249 remain in force before requiring renewal?

29. Laws made by Parliament under a Rajya Sabha resolution cease to have effect on the expiration of how many months after the resolution ceases to be in force?

30. During a national emergency, laws made by Parliament on State List matters become inoperative on the expiration of how many months after the emergency ceases to operate?

31. When two or more states pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate on a State List matter, such a law can be amended or repealed by whom?

32. Which of the following is an example of a law enacted by Parliament under the "states' request" provision?

33. Which of the following laws was enacted by Parliament to implement an international agreement?

34. A law made by Parliament on a State List matter during President's Rule in a state continues to be operative even after the President's Rule ends, unless it is repealed by whom?

35. Under Articles 200 and 201, when a Governor reserves a state bill for the President's consideration, what kind of veto does the President enjoy over it?

36. A state bill imposing restrictions on freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse can be introduced in the state legislature only with which of the following?

37. During a financial emergency, the Centre can direct states to reserve which category of bills for the President's consideration?

38. The Governor cannot make an ordinance without instructions from the President in certain cases, as per which Article?

39. Which Commission observed that "the rule of federal supremacy is a technique to avoid absurdity, resolve conflict and ensure harmony between the Union and state laws"?

40. In which years did the Sarkaria Commission examine Centre-State relations?

41. The executive power has been divided between the Centre and the states largely following which principle?

42. The executive power of the Centre extends to the whole of India in respect of which of the following? (I) Matters on which Parliament has exclusive power of legislation (II) Rights, authority, and jurisdiction conferred by any treaty or agreement (III) All matters in the Concurrent List Which of the above is/are correct?

43. On matters in the Concurrent List, executive power generally rests with whom, except when specifically conferred otherwise?

44. The executive power of every state must be exercised so as to ensure compliance with which of the following?

45. Which Article empowers the President to hold that a state's government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution, if the state fails to comply with Central directions?

46. Consider the following matters on which the Centre can give directions to the states regarding exercise of executive power: (I) Construction and maintenance of communication means of national or military importance (II) Protection of railways within the state (III) Appointment of the state's Advocate General Which of the above is/are correct?

47. The Constitution provides for inter-government delegation of executive functions mainly to achieve which purpose?

48. The President may, with the consent of a state government, entrust to that government any of which of the following?

49. When the Centre entrusts its executive functions to a state without that state's consent, the delegation is done by which authority?

50. Consider the following statements on mutual delegation of functions: (I) The Centre can delegate functions either by agreement or by legislation (II) A state can delegate functions only by agreement, not by legislation (III) A state legislature can confer powers and impose duties on the Centre irrespective of the Centre's consent Which of the above is/are correct?

51. Which Article empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Centre and states?

52. In which year was the Inter-State Council actually set up?

53. Under the Constitution, full faith and credit is to be given throughout India to which of the following?

54. Consider the following All-India Services: (I) IAS (II) IPS (III) IFoS Which of the above is/are correctly included among the All-India Services?

55. In which year was the Indian Civil Service (ICS) replaced by the IAS?

56. In which year was the Indian Forest Service (IFoS) created as the third All-India Service?

57. Which Article authorises Parliament to create new All-India Services on the basis of a Rajya Sabha resolution?

58. Members of the All-India Services are recruited and trained by whom, though their immediate control vests with the states?

59. Who observed in the Constituent Assembly that the Indian federation, though a dual polity, would have a dual service "but with one exception," justifying the institution of All-India Services?

60. The Chairman and members of a state public service commission, though appointed by the Governor, can be removed only by whom?

61. A Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states can be established by whom?

62. The UPSC can serve the needs of a state on the request of the state governor and with the approval of whom?

63. Judges of a state High Court are appointed by the President in consultation with which of the following?

64. Which of the following pairs of states share a common High Court?

65. During a national emergency under Article 352, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on which matters?

66. When President's Rule is imposed under Article 356, the President can assume to himself/herself which of the following?

67. During a financial emergency under Article 360, the Centre can direct states to do which of the following?

68. Article 355 imposes which two duties on the Centre?

69. The Governor of a state, besides being the constitutional head, also acts as which of the following?

70. The state election commissioner, though appointed by the Governor, can be removed only by whom?

71. Which non-constitutional advisory body succeeded the Planning Commission?

72. Consider the following conferences held to facilitate Centre-state consultation: (I) The Governors' Conference, presided over by the President (II) The Chief Ministers' Conference, presided over by the Prime Minister (III) The Chief Justices' Conference, presided over by the Chief Justice of India Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

73. The Parliament has exclusive power to levy taxes on how many subjects enumerated in the Union List?

74. The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on how many subjects enumerated in the State List?

75. Consider the following statements regarding tax entries in the Concurrent List: (I) There are no tax entries in the Concurrent List (II) The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 made an exception for goods and services tax (III) Both Parliament and state legislatures always had concurrent power to levy income tax Which of the above is/are correct?

76. The residuary power of taxation is vested in which authority?

77. Consider the following taxes: (I) Gift tax (II) Wealth tax (III) Expenditure tax Which of the above has/have been imposed by Parliament under its residuary power of taxation?

78. The income-tax is levied and collected by the Centre, but its proceeds are distributed between the Centre and the states. This illustrates which constitutional distinction?

79. What is the present ceiling on the total amount of tax payable per annum by any person under a state tax on professions, trades, callings, and employments?

80. Which Amendment Act raised the ceiling on professional tax from ₹250 to ₹2,500 per annum?

81. A state legislature is prohibited from imposing a tax on the supply of goods or services where such supply takes place in which of the following cases? (I) Outside the state (II) In the course of import or export (III) Within a municipal corporation area Which of the above is/are correct?

82. A state legislature cannot impose a tax on the consumption or sale of electricity which is consumed by which of the following?

83. Which two Amendment Acts introduced major changes in the scheme of distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the states?

84. The 80th Amendment Act of 2000 was enacted to give effect to the recommendations of which Finance Commission?

85. The 10th Finance Commission recommended that what percentage of income from certain central taxes and duties should go to the states?

86. The scheme recommended by the 10th Finance Commission, sharing central tax revenue with states, is known by which name?

87. The Alternative Scheme of Devolution came into effect retrospectively from which date?

88. The 101st Amendment Act paved the way for introducing which new tax regime?

89. Which Article, dealing with service tax, was deleted by the 101st Amendment Act?

90. Article 268-A and the related Entry 92-C in the Union List, dealing with service tax, were originally added by which Amendment Act?

91. Under Article 268, which category of taxes is levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the states?

92. Under Article 269, which of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the states?

93. Under Article 269-A, GST on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or commerce is levied and collected by whom?

94. Under Article 270, taxes levied and collected by the Centre but distributed between the Centre and states are distributed based on whose recommendation?

95. Under Article 271, surcharges levied by Parliament on certain taxes and duties go exclusively to whom?

96. Is the Goods and Services Tax subject to the surcharge under Article 271?

97. Which of the following is a source of non-tax revenue for the Centre?

98. Which of the following is a source of non-tax revenue for the states?

99. Statutory grants to states in need of financial assistance are provided under which Article?

100. Statutory grants under Article 275 are given to the states on the recommendation of which body?

101. Discretionary grants for any public purpose, even outside the legislative competence of the grantor, are provided under which Article?

102. Why are grants under Article 282 called "discretionary grants"?

103. The Constitution provided for a temporary type of grant to which states in lieu of export duties on jute and jute products?

104. These temporary jute-related grants were to be given for how many years from the commencement of the Constitution?

105. Which Article provided for the establishment of the Goods and Services Tax Council?

106. The GST Council is constituted by an order of whom?

107. Consider the following matters on which the GST Council makes recommendations: (I) Taxes, cesses, and surcharges to be merged into GST (II) Goods and services to be subjected to or exempted from GST (III) Appointment of judges to the Supreme Court Which of the above is/are correct?

108. Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission as which kind of body?

109. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every how many years, or earlier?

110. Consider the following matters on which the Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President: (I) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and states (II) Principles governing grants-in-aid to states (III) Appointment of state governors Which of the above is/are correct?

111. The Finance Commission also recommends measures to augment a state's Consolidated Fund to supplement resources of which local bodies?

112. This function relating to panchayats and municipalities was added to the Finance Commission's role by which Amendment Acts?

113. The Constitution envisages the Finance Commission as which of the following?

114. Consider the following bills that can be introduced in Parliament only on the recommendation of the President, to protect the interests of states in financial matters: (I) A bill imposing or varying any tax or duty in which states are interested (II) A bill affecting the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states (III) A bill imposing any surcharge on any tax or duty for the purpose of the Centre Which of the above is/are correct?

115. The phrase 'net proceeds' refers to which of the following?

116. Which authority ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of a tax or duty in any area, with the certificate being final?

117. The Central government can borrow within India or outside upon the security of which fund?

118. A state government can borrow upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State, but only within which limits?

119. Can a state government borrow from outside India?

120. A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre under which circumstance?

121. The rule of 'immunity from mutual taxation' under the Constitution means which of the following?

122. The property of the Centre is exempted from all taxes imposed by a state, but Parliament is empowered to do which of the following?

123. Are corporations or companies created by the Central government immune from state or local taxation?

124. Can the Centre tax the commercial operations of a state?

125. Is the property or income of local authorities situated within a state exempted from Central taxation?

126. In its 1963 advisory opinion, the Supreme Court held that a state's immunity from Central taxation does not extend to which of the following?

127. During a national emergency under Article 352, the President can do which of the following regarding Centre-state revenue distribution?

128. Modifications to Centre-state revenue distribution during a national emergency continue until when?

129. During a financial emergency under Article 360, the Centre can direct states to do which of the following? (I) Observe specified canons of financial propriety (II) Reduce salaries and allowances of persons serving in the state (III) Reserve all money bills and financial bills for Presidential consideration Which of the above is/are correct?

130. Till which year were Centre-state relations by and large smooth due to one-party rule at the Centre and in most states?

131. In the 1967 elections, the Congress party was defeated in how many states?

132. Consider the following issues identified as tension areas in Centre-state relations: (I) Mode of appointment and dismissal of governor (II) Deployment of Central forces in states to maintain law and order (III) Composition of the Rajya Sabha Which of the above is/are correct?

133. Which body's role in approving state projects was cited as a source of Centre-state tension, until its replacement in 2015?

134. In which year was the First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India appointed?

135. Who was the first chairman of the First Administrative Reforms Commission?

136. The First ARC submitted its report on Centre-state relations to the Central government in which year?

137. How many recommendations did the First ARC make for improving Centre-state relations?

138. Consider the following recommendations of the First ARC: (I) Establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 (II) Appointment of non-partisan persons with long public experience as governors (III) Abolition of all All-India Services Which of the above is/are correct?

139. What action did the Central government take on the First ARC's recommendations on Centre-state relations?

140. Which state government appointed the Rajamannar Committee in 1969 to examine Centre-state relations?

141. Who chaired the Rajamannar Committee?

142. In which year did the Rajamannar Committee submit its report to the Tamil Nadu Government?

143. Consider the following recommendations of the Rajamannar Committee: (I) Disbanding the Planning Commission and replacing it with a statutory body (II) Total omission of Articles 356, 357, and 365 (III) Strengthening and expanding the All-India Services Which of the above is/are correct?

144. How did the Central government respond to the Rajamannar Committee's recommendations?

145. Which political party adopted the Anandpur Sahib Resolution in 1973?

146. Where was the meeting held at which the Anandpur Sahib Resolution was adopted?

147. The Anandpur Sahib Resolution demanded that the Centre's jurisdiction be restricted to which subjects?

148. In which year did the West Bengal Government publish its memorandum on Centre-state relations?

149. Which party led the West Bengal Government that published the 1977 memorandum on Centre-state relations?

150. Consider the following suggestions made in the 1977 West Bengal Memorandum: (I) The word 'Union' in the Constitution should be replaced by 'federal' (II) 75 per cent of total Central revenue should be allocated to the states (III) The Rajya Sabha's powers should be reduced relative to the Lok Sabha Which of the above is/are correct?

151. In which year was the Sarkaria Commission appointed by the Central government?

152. Who chaired the Sarkaria Commission?

153. In which year did the Sarkaria Commission submit its report?

154. Did the Sarkaria Commission favour structural changes to the constitutional arrangements between the Centre and states?

155. How many recommendations did the Sarkaria Commission make to improve Centre-state relations?

156. The Sarkaria Commission recommended that Article 356 (President's Rule) should be used under which circumstance?

157. Consider the following recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission: (I) A permanent Inter-State Council should be set up under Article 263 (II) The National Development Council should be renamed as the National Economic and Development Council (III) All-India Services should be abolished Which of the above is/are correct?

158. How many of the Sarkaria Commission's 247 recommendations has the Central government implemented?

159. Which important recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission was implemented through the establishment of a body in 1990?

160. In which year was the Second Commission on Centre-State Relations (Punchhi Commission) set up?

161. Who chaired the Punchhi Commission?

162. Madan Mohan Punchhi had earlier held which position?

163. In which year did the Punchhi Commission submit its report to the government?

164. According to the Punchhi Commission, which principle will be key for sustaining India's unity, integrity, and development in future?

165. Approximately how many recommendations did the Punchhi Commission make in total?

166. Consider the following recommendations of the Punchhi Commission regarding governors: (I) Governors should be given a fixed tenure of five years (II) Removal of governors should not be at the sweet will of the Central government (III) Governors should be appointed only from within the concerned state Which of the above is/are correct?

167. The Punchhi Commission recommended incorporating the guidelines from which landmark Supreme Court case into amendments regarding Article 356?

168. The Punchhi Commission proposed a framework for which kind of emergency, to handle situations needing Central intervention without invoking Articles 352 or 356?

169. Which body did the Punchhi Commission recommend should have a continuing auditing role in managing concurrent or overlapping jurisdiction matters?

170. Article 262 of the Constitution deals with which of the following?

171. Under Article 262, Parliament may provide that jurisdiction over an inter-state water dispute is excluded for which of the following?

172. Consider the following laws enacted by Parliament under Article 262: (I) River Boards Act, 1956 (II) Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 (III) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 Which of the above is/are correct?

173. A river board under the River Boards Act is established by the Central government on whose request?

174. Under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, the decision of an ad hoc tribunal is which of the following?

175. Which of the following tribunals was set up to resolve a water dispute involving Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry?

176. In which year was the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal set up?

177. Which tribunal, set up in 1986, involved Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan?

178. Which of the following water dispute tribunals was set up most recently, in 2018?

179. Consider the following statements regarding water dispute tribunals set up in 1969: (I) The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal-I involved Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh (II) The Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal involved five states (III) The Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal involved Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan Which of the above is/are correct?

180. Article 263 contemplates the establishment of which body?

181. Under Article 263, the establishment of an Inter-State Council depends on whose satisfaction that public interest would be served?

182. Consider the following duties that Article 263 specifies may be assigned to an inter-state council: (I) Enquiring into and advising upon disputes between states (II) Investigating subjects of common interest between states or the Centre and states (III) Adjudicating water disputes with binding effect Which of the above is/are correct?

183. An inter-state council's function to enquire and advise upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court's jurisdiction under which Article?

184. Unlike the Supreme Court's jurisdiction under Article 131, the inter-state council's function is best described as which of the following?

185. Which of the following councils has been established by the President under Article 263 for coordination in a specific policy area?

186. How many Regional Councils for Sales Tax were established under Article 263, covering different zones?

187. Which Commission made a strong case for establishing a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263?

188. The Sarkaria Commission recommended that the permanent Inter-State Council be called by which name, to distinguish it from other Article 263 bodies?

189. Which government established the Inter-State Council in 1990?

190. Who acts as the Chairman of the Inter-State Council?

191. Consider the following categories of members of the Inter-State Council: (I) Chief ministers of all the states (II) Governors of states under President's Rule (III) Chief Justices of all state High Courts Which of the above is/are correct?

192. How many Central cabinet ministers, including the home minister, are nominated by the Prime Minister to the Inter-State Council?

193. How many Ministers of Cabinet rank are permanent invitees to the Inter-State Council?

194. The Inter-State Council is required to meet how many times a year, at minimum?

195. Decisions in the Inter-State Council's meetings are taken by which method?

196. In which year was the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council set up?

197. Who chairs the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council?

198. How many Chief Ministers are members of the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council?

199. In which year was the Inter-State Council Secretariat set up?

200. Since which year has the Inter-State Council Secretariat also functioned as the secretariat of the Zonal Councils?

201. The "Full Faith and Credit" clause requires full faith and credit to be given throughout India to which of the following?

202. The manner in which public acts, records, and proceedings are to be proved is determined as provided by which authority?

203. Final judgements and orders of civil courts in any part of India can be executed anywhere in India without which requirement?

204. Does the "Full Faith and Credit" execution rule for civil judgements also apply to criminal judgements?

205. Which Articles in Part XIII of the Constitution deal with trade, commerce, and intercourse within India?

206. Article 301 declares that trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout India shall be which of the following?

207. The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 extends to which of the following?

208. Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse in the public interest, but cannot discriminate between states except in which case?

209. A state bill imposing reasonable restrictions on trade, commerce, and intercourse can be introduced in the state legislature only with which of the following?

210. This provision, allowing states to tax imported goods equal to similar locally made goods, primarily prohibits what?

211. The freedom under Article 301 is subject to which of the following?

212. Which Act is cited as an example of Parliament restricting trade under Article 302, allowing Central control over essential commodities?

213. Has the appropriate authority contemplated under Article 307, for carrying out the purposes of Part XIII, been appointed so far?

214. In the USA, the authority analogous to what Article 307 contemplates in India is known by which name?

215. Zonal Councils are which kind of bodies?

216. Zonal Councils were established under which Act of Parliament?

217. How many zones did the States Reorganisation Act divide the country into for the purpose of Zonal Councils?

218. Who is the common chairman of all five Zonal Councils?

219. Each Chief Minister acts as vice-chairman of a Zonal Council by rotation, holding office for which period?

220. Consider the following persons who can be associated with a Zonal Council as advisors, without voting rights: (I) A person nominated by NITI Aayog (II) Chief secretary of each state in the zone (III) A nominated member of the Rajya Sabha Which of the above is/are correct?

221. Which body was created by a separate Act of Parliament in 1971 for a specific region, with functions similar to but broader than the Zonal Councils?

222. Which state was added as the eighth member of the North-Eastern Council in 2002?

11. Centre-State and Inter-State Relations